Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 00:20
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Atheists who have read the Bible and think that contains immoral things, why do you assume that?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
If you were president, how would you make America "great again?"
What's (not “whats”) the rule?