Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 00:39
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What are James Potter's flaws?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why is Eric Clapton so roundly disliked among guitarists?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Bradford researchers solve mystery of disease and wool trade - BBC
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.